The Conclusion attempts to answer the main question posed by this VSI: why, despite sharing common roots in the Semitic monotheism of the Near East, do the West and Muslim societies seem to be headed for a clash? Any questions such as this are based on a number of generalizations which need qualification. Is the clash down to geography, ‘external’ cultural influence, Muslim–Western relations, or the political circumstances of Islam's foundation? Is it because of antagonism between ‘Muslim’ engagement with ‘Western’ culture? Is it a result of different religious institutions? Or could it be attributed to a lack of Renaissance or Reformation in Muslim history?